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  • Other Imaging Techniques

    Still more advanced technologies can be used to study your heart’s structure and function. These procedures include computed tomogra- phy (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), and positron emission tomography (PET). Such techniques are used to get more detailed information or to avoid more invasive procedures. These scanners are not available at all hospitals or diagnostic centers and are used only when needed to answer speci?c questions your physician may have.

    Computed Tomography

    CT scanning is an advanced X-ray technique that can take cross-sectional images of your heart. To have a CT scan done, you lie on a movable table that slides into the tubular CT scanner. Many images are taken from all sides of your body. A computer combines these images to construct a detailed cross section of a structure. Your doctor can assess images of your heart, lungs, or major blood vessels. CT scans are often used to see if calci?cation, a natural reaction to injury, has occurred in your blood vessels as a result of atherosclerosis (see page 152), or in your heart muscle as a result of a heart attack. As with other X-ray techniques, CT scanning passes some radiation through your body, but it is a minimal, safe amount that does not remain in your body after the test.

    In some cases, a contrast agent (iodine-based dye) is injected into your bloodstream to get a clearer image. If you are not being injected with the dye, you will be told not to eat for about 2 hours before the test. If you are being injected with the dye, you should not eat for about 4 hours beforehand. In some people, this contrast agent causes hot ?ushing and other allergic symptoms, but this reaction is rare .
    You will be asked to put on a hospital gown and lie down on the table. If a contrast medium is being used, an intravenous line will be placed into your arm. The table will be moved slowly into the scanner. The technician will start taking pictures, and you will be asked to lie still and hold your breath brie?y as each image is taken. After the test, you may resume your usual activities.

    Electron Beam Computed Tomography

    Electron beam computed tomography (EBCT or fast CT) is a faster form of CT scanning that takes images in about one-tenth of a second (compared to 1 to 10 seconds for a conventional
    CT scan). Because the heart is always in motion, a conventional CT sometimes creates a blurred image. EBCT is fast enough to avoid this prob- lem. EBCT enables your doctor to detect calci- ?cation in your arteries. EBCT is sometimes used for “whole body screening” for healthy people, but there is no evidence it is effective for that purpose.

    Spiral Computed Tomography

    Spiral computed tomography (or spiral or hel- ical CT) is another form of fast CT scanning. For a conventional CT, you rest on a table while the scanner is moved slightly for each picture; with spiral CT, you lie on a table that moves slowly through the scanner while it takes images nonstop. These scanners are particu- larly helpful in ?nding aneurysms (ballooning in the wall of a weakened artery) and blood clots in the lungs (pulmonary emboli).

    Magnetic Resonance Imaging

    MRI is another technology that uses magnetic ?elds and radio signals to form an image. Brie?y, the MRI scanner surrounds your body with a magnetic ?eld that reacts with magnetic elements in your body (such as hydrogen). The reaction causes radio signals from which a computer can construct an image. MRI scans produce images that are similar to those from a CT scan, but no radiation is used, and the MRI shows slightly different tissues. The test is painless, does not involve any injections, and does not pose any known risks. People who have pacemakers or other internal metallic devices cannot have an MRI, but people with arti?cial heart valves that are not magnetically active can have one safely. This test can be performed safely in the second half of pregnancy.
    You do not need to prepare in any way for an MRI. You will change into a hospital gown and lie on a table that will be placed in the scan- ner, which is a long, narrow tube. Some people with claustrophobia may find the scanner uncomfortable. However, many scanners are now made with open ends that eliminate this problem. If you are con- cerned about being inside the scanner, talk to your doctor before the test is done; a sedative may be administered to help you relax through the test.
    When you are inside the scanner, you may be asked to hold your breath brie?y while images are taken. You may hear loud noises inside the scanner. Sometimes you can listen to music through headphones while you are inside the scanner, but the technician’s instructions will also be transmitted via the headset. After the test, you can go about your usual activities.

    Magnetic Resonance Angiography

    MRA uses an MRI scanner to analyze the blood vessels leading to the brain, kidneys, and legs. This type of scan is done using different set- tings on the scanner, so the procedure is the same as for an MRI from your point of view. Usually, an MRA is done using gadolinium, a mag- netic contrast agent to which virtually no one is allergic. This contrast agent is given as an injection, usually in your arm, before the scanning is done.

    Positron Emission Tomography

    PET scanning uses information about the energy released by subatomic particles in your body to form an image. A radioactive substance is injected into your body that will travel to damaged or malfunctioning tissues. These tissues have increased or decreased metabolic activity. The PET scanner detects and measures the radioactive substance in these areas of your body, and a computer constructs images. A PET scan is highly accurate because it shows your heart tissue at work. The uses for this technology are still developing, but it has the poten- tial to show how your heart uses energy at a cellular level. Currently, PET scans are used mainly in research rather than in patient care or diagnosis of heart disease.
    You do not need to prepare for a PET scan in any way. You will be asked to remove your clothes from the waist up, and a technician will place a ring of detectors around your chest. You will lie down on a table that will be moved into the PET scanner. The scanner is shaped like a large funnel, and your body will be in the tube. The technician or doctor will take a picture of your heart before the radioactive sub- stance is injected. You need to keep your arms above your head during this part of the test, which takes about 15 to 30 minutes. Then the radioactive material will be injected, usually in your arm. You will have to wait about 45 minutes for the substance to move into your heart. Again, you will be asked to keep your arms over your head while the images are being taken. After the test, you may resume your usual activities.

    Multidetector CT Scans

    A type of CT scanner with more detectors than a conventional CT machine can be used to provide the same kind of infor- mation about the coronary arteries as an angiogram reveals (see page 146). Because having a CT scan is easier and less expensive than an angiogram, the multidetector CT scan might be used more frequently in the future. A recent application is CT angiography, in which dye is injected and images are made of the coronary arteries that may detect both calcified and noncalcified deposits. CT angiography is being used as a screen- ing tool in high-risk people and as a diag- nostic tool in some hospital emergency departments with specialized chest pain centers. Medical experts are working on standards to guide the use of the new multidetector scanners.

  • Multiunit Gated Blood Pool Scan (MUGA)

    A multiunit gated blood pool scan (MUGA) is an assessment of how your blood pools in your heart during rest or exercise, or both. The test shows how well the heart pumps blood and whether it has to compen- sate for blocked arteries. It also reliably measures your ejection fraction, which is the percentage of your blood pumped out of your ventricles with each heartbeat. The ejection fraction normally increases during exercise.

    What to Expect

    If you are having only a resting scan MUGA, no special preparation is necessary. You should check with your doctor whether you need to stop taking any heart medications for a day or two beforehand. If you are having an exercise MUGA, you should not eat or drink anything other than water the night before the test. Depending on the extent of the testing, you should allow 2 to 4 hours for its completion. For the test, you will usually be asked to change into a hospital gown, and a techni- cian will attach electrodes to your chest. The electrodes will be wired to a nuclear imaging computer. Then the technician will draw a small amount of your blood and mix it with the radioactive tracing material. About 10 minutes later, he or she will inject the prepared blood back into your arm. Then you will lie down on a table while the technician takes a number of images of your heart with the gamma camera. If you are having only a resting MUGA, the test is complete and you can go home.
    If you are having an exercise MUGA, you will move to a different table with pedals at the foot. While you lie on the table, you will pedal as if you were on a bicycle, and the technician will take images. You will pedal through a warm-up stage, and then the exercise will be gradually increased until you are tired. You will be carefully monitored through- out the test.
    After your MUGA, you may feel tired, but you can return to your usual activities. The harmless radioactive substance will leave your body in 2 or 3 days. This test should not be performed during pregnancy.

    What the Results Mean

    The full results of your test will be ready in a few days. In addition to the images produced, the computer also calculates the size and shape of your ventricles and measures the amount of blood in them. A low ejec- tion fraction may be due to blockages in your coronary arteries or a problem with a heart muscle.

  • Nuclear Imaging

    Nuclear imaging, or scanning, techniques produce highly accurate pic- tures of your heart and its function by introducing a small, safe amount

    of radiation into your body. Trace amounts of radioactive material, called radionuclides, are injected into your bloodstream. The radionuclides tag your red blood cells and circulate with them into your heart and heart muscle. A specialized gamma camera, which reacts to the radiation by emitting light, constructs an image that is displayed on a monitor. Your doctor can study both your heart muscle and blood ?ow. Nuclear imaging techniques are often done in combination with a stress test and an injection of thallium. The nuclear isotope ?ows in the blood and may not appear on areas of the heart where there is a decreased blood supply; this is called a cold spot, or a perfusion (?ow) defect.

    Thallium Stress Test

    A thallium stress test shows how well blood is ?owing to the heart mus- cle during exercise. It can show any decreased blood ?ow to speci?c parts of the heart due to blockage of a coronary artery, the aftereffects of a heart attack, the effectiveness of procedures done to open coronary arteries, and other causes of chest pain. This test is also called a perfu- sion scan (perfusion is the ?ow of blood through a speci?c organ or tis- sue) or an isotope stress test (thallium and technetium are the two most common isotopes, or radioactive substances, used for these tests).
    As with other nuclear scanning techniques, thallium or another trac- ing substance injected into your bloodstream travels to your heart and enters heart muscle cells. The images produced by the scan show how much blood is getting to different parts of your heart. If the supply appears reduced to a certain area, it indicates a coronary artery block- age. If no blood is getting to some tissue, it is probably dead (scar) tis- sue from a previous heart attack. The ?ow is compared at rest and after medication-induced stress. The test should not be performed during pregnancy.

    What to Expect

    You prepare for a thallium stress test like any other stress test. Do not eat or drink anything for 3 or 4 hours before the procedure, and wear clothing and shoes that will be comfortable during a treadmill exercise test—for example, athletic shoes or running shoes. Ask your doctor about whether you should take your usual medications before the test, particularly if you have diabetes and are taking insulin. For people who cannot exercise, this test can also be performed after medication is injected to simulate the effects of exercise. Ask how long the test will take; it may take several hours.
    At the time of the test, a technician will apply electrodes to your chest and back that are attached to an ECG (electrocardiography) machine. Your heart rate and blood pressure will be measured, and then you will get on a treadmill. You will continue on the treadmill at a grad- ually increasing pace, until you are at or near your maximum level of exercise. You will be injected with the thallium (or other tracing mate- rial). Your heart rhythm is monitored continuously, and your blood pressure is checked periodically. You will then lie down on a table with a gamma camera over it, and the technician will take images of your heart while it is still working hard. You may need to hold a position for several minutes with your arm raised over your head.
    After the exercise portion of the test is over, you can leave the of?ce or laboratory for 3 or 4 hours. You may get something to eat and drink, as long as it does not contain caffeine or chocolate. When you return, you will lie down on the table under the gamma camera for images of your heart at rest. The thallium has moved through your body and can now be seen. It is important to lie still during this part of the test, which may last from 10 to 20 minutes. Some people ?nd it challenging to lie in one position on a hard table, but there is no actual pain. When the test is complete, you can return to your usual activities and eat or drink anything you like.
    Some laboratories choose to do the resting scan ?rst and then the exercise scan. This test should not be performed during pregnancy.

    What the Results Mean

    You will probably get the full results in a few days. Generally, the results of a thallium stress test are as follows:
    • If your results are normal during both exercise and rest, the blood flow through your coronary arteries to your heart muscle is adequate.
    • If the blood ?ow is normal during rest but not during exercise (which your doctor may call a perfusion defect), then your heart is not getting enough blood when it is working harder. An artery is probably blocked.
    • If your blood ?ow is reduced during rest and worsens during exer- cise, a portion of your heart is undersupplied at all times.
    • If no thallium is present at all in some of your heart muscle both during and after exercise (the so-called ?xed effect), you have prob- ably had a heart attack and some tissue is dead; it is now scar tissue.

  • Enteric Bacilli (Enterogacteriacae)

    Enteric bacilli form a large family of gramegative rods (see Table 37-6). As their name implies, most are found primarily in the intestinal tract. These include species such as Salmonella, Shigella, Escherichia coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Proteus, and several others (see Table 37-6). Many are normal inhabitants and cause disease only if they escape to other locations or if certain pathogenic types overgrow; others are introduced from contaminated food or water. Salmonellae and shigellae are not normal gastrointestinal inhabitants and always indicate a source of infection from the environment.

    Salmonella

    These organisms cause several clinical syndromes. Typhoid fever is produced by Salmonella typhi (Salmonella typhosa). The classic symptoms are a rising fever during the first week, a plateau at 103°F-104°F (39.4°C-40.0°C) for the second week, then a slow fall during the third week, plus GI symptoms and splenomegaly. Despite fever, the pulse rate tends to be slow (bradycardia). This picture is often not present in its entirety. Diarrhea occurs in 30%-60% of patients. There typically is mild leukopenia with lymphocytosis and monocytosis. However, in one series only 10% of patients had leukopenia and 7% had a WBC count more than 15,000/mm3.

    Laboratory diagnosis. During the first and second weeks of illness, blood cultures are the best means of diagnosis; thereafter, the incidence of positive specimens declines rapidly. During the latter part of the second week to the early part of the fourth week, stool cultures are the most valuable source of diagnosis. However, stool cultures may occasionally be positive in the first week; in carriers, positive stool cultures may persist for long periods. (About 3%-5% of typhoid patients become carriers—persons with chronic subclinical infection.) Urine cultures may be done during the third and fourth weeks but are not very effective. Even with maximum yield, blood cultures miss at least 20% of cases, stool cultures miss at least 25%, and urine cultures miss at least 75%. Repeated cultures increase the chance of diagnosis. Besides cultures, serologic tests may be performed. There are three major antigens in S. typhi: the H (flagellar), O (somatic), and Vi (capsule or envelope) antigens. Antibody titers against these antigens constitute the Widal test. Most authorities agree that of the three antibodies, only that against the O antigen is meaningful for diagnosis. Vaccination causes a marked increase in the anti-H antibodies; the level of anti-O antibodies rises to a lesser degree and returns much more quickly to normal. The Widal test (anti-O) antibodies begin to appear 7-10 days after onset of illness. The highest percentage of positive test results is reported to be in the third and fourth weeks. As with any serologic test, a fourfold (change of at least two dilution levels) rising titer is more significant than a single determination. There has been considerable controversy over the usefulness of the Widal test in the diagnosis of Salmonella infections. It seems to have definite but limited usefulness. Drawbacks to the Widal test include the following: (1) antibodies do not develop early in the illness and may be suppressed by antibiotic therapy; (2) antibody behavioris often variable and often does not correlate with the severity of the clinical picture; (3) an appreciable number of cases (15% or more) do not have a significantly elevated anti-O titer, especially if only one determination is done. Only about 50% (one study obtained only 22%) display a fourfold rise in titer. In some cases, therapy may suppress the response. A normal Widal titer is 0-1:40.

    To summarize, in typhoid fever, blood cultures during the first and second weeks and stool cultures during the second, third, and fourth weeks are the diagnostic tests of choice. The Widal test may occasionally be helpful. Negative diagnostic test results do not exclude the diagnosis.

    Paratyphoid fever (enteric fever) is produced by salmonellae other than S. typhi; the clinical picture is similar to typhoid fever but milder. Salmonella typhimurium and Salmonella enteritidis (formerly Salmonella paratyphi) are usually the most common causes in the United States. Diagnosis is similar to that for typhoid fever.

    In the United States, Salmonella gastroenteritis is more frequent than typhoid fever or enteric fever. The gastroenteritis syndrome has a short incubation, features abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea, and is most commonly produced by S. typhimurium. There is usually leukocytosis with a minimal increase in neutrophils, in contrast to the leukopenia in textbook cases of typhoid fever. Blood cultures are said to be negative; stool cultures are usually positive.

    Other salmonella diseases. Septicemia may occasionally be found, and salmonellae may rarely cause focal infection in various organs, resulting in pneumonia, meningitis, and endocarditis. Salmonella osteomyelitis has been associated with sickle cell anemia. Salmonella bacteremia is relatively frequent in patients with systemic lupus erythematosis. Salmonella infections, including bacteremia, are also more frequent in the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and in patients with leukemia or lymphoma.

    Sources of salmonella infection. Salmonella typhi is found only in humans, and infection is transmitted through fecal contamination of food and water. Other salmonellae infect poultry and animals. Nontyphoid salmonellosis is most commonly acquired from poultry and eggs, which in turn are most frequently associated with S. enteritidis infection. It is necessary to cook an egg thoroughly to avoid S. enteritidis infection, even when the eggshell has no evidence of being cracked. However, Centers for Disease Control (CDC) reports that one third of egg-related S. enteritidis infections took place when eggs had been cooked at recommended time and temperature. Only when cooking causes all of the egg yolk to become solid will the egg become safe. Pasteurized eggs are another option. Contaminated meat and nonpasteurized or powdered milk have been an occasional problem. Reptiles are reported to carry Salmonella species in 36%-84% of those cultured.

    Due to DNA hybridization and other research work, the genus Salmonella is being reorganized to include certain organisms, such as Arizona, that previously were not considered salmonellae. The organisms previously considered Salmonella species are now serotypes (serovars) of the subspecies choleraesuis from the species Salmonella choleraesuis. The other organisms, such as Arizona, form part of other subspecies of S. choleraesuis.

    Shigella

    The shigellae are also important sources of intestinal infection as well as the salmonellae. Shigella organisms cause so-called bacillary dysentery. Shigellae usually remain localized to the colon and do not enter the peripheral blood; blood cultures are therefore negative, in contrast to blood cultures in early Salmonella infection. Stool culture is the main diagnostic test. Besides salmonellae and shigellae, certain other bacteria (e.g., Yersinia enterocolitica, Campylobacter jejuni, Clostridium difficile, and enteropathogenic E. coli) may cause diarrhea from GI infection; these are discussed elsewhere.

    Enterobacter and Klebsiella

    These bacteria are normal GI tract inhabitants. Nomenclature has been particularly confusing in relation to these organisms. Enterobacter was formerly called Aerobacter. Enterobacter and Klebsiella react differently to certain test media but are similar enough that previous classifications included both in the same group. According to previous custom, if infection by these organisms was in the lungs it was called Klebsiella; if it was in the urinary tract, it was called Aerobacter. Current classification does not make this distinction. The species of Klebsiella called Klebsiella pneumoniae is the organism that produces so-called Friedlьnder’s pneumonia, a resistant necrotizing pneumonia that often cavitates and that is characteristically found in alcoholics and debilitated patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae also is an important cause (about 10%) of both community-acquired and hospital-acquired urinary tract infection. The species of Enterobacter called Enterobacter aerogenes is an important agent (about 5%) in nosocomial urinary tract infections, is often resistant to therapy, and occasionally produces septicemia.

    Present classification differentiates Enterobacter from Klebsiella. Sources of confusion include the family name Enterobacteriaceae, which is similar to the name of one component genus, Enterobacter. Enterobacteriaceae is a group of several tribes, each of which contains a genus or genera. One tribe, Klebsiellae, has a similar name to one of its three component genera, Klebsiella, and also includes the genus Enterobacter. A further source of difficulty is that the predominant species of Klebsiella is K. pneumoniae, which, despite its name, is found more frequently in the urinary tract than in the lungs.

    Escherichia

    Escherichia coli is the most common cause of community-acquired (about 70%) and of hospital-acquired urinary tract infection (about 50%). E. coli is likewise the most common cause of gramegative bacteremia or septicemia, both of community-acquired or hospital-acquired origin. The primary site of infection leading to bloodstream entry is most often the urinary tract, as happens with the majority of the gramegative rod bacteria. This is more frequent with urinary tract obstruction. E. coli is one of the most common causes of severe infection in the newborn, especially meningitis. E. coli causes periodic outbreaks of epidemic diarrhea in newborns and infants. E. coli has been incriminated as an important cause of traveler’s diarrhea, which may affect U.S. tourists in other countries. E. coli is a normal inhabitant of the colon, so a stool culture growing E. coli does not prove that the organism is the causative agent of diarrhea.

    In the past it was thought that only certain strains of E. coli were responsible for diarrhea, and that serotyping (using antisera against the so-called enteropathogenic strains) was helpful in deciding whether or not E. coli was responsible for diarrhea by demonstrating or excluding the presence of the enteropathogenic subspecies (see Table 37-9). However, so many exceptions have been noted that serotyping is no longer advocated except as an epidemiologic tool to show that patients in an epidemic are infected by the same E. coli strain. Nevertheless, there is a condition caused by a specific strain of E. coli (0157:H7) called hemorrhagic colitis, manifested by severe diarrhea with abdominal pain and bloody stools. In the United States this organism predominately exists by colonizing cattle (10%-20% prevalence rate). Diarrhea in humans is caused by production of a verotoxin. Although bloody diarrhea is the organism’s trademark, about 30% of cases are said to have diarrhea without blood. Stools usually do not contain many WBCs. About 10%-30% of patients need hospitalization and 2%-7% develop the hemolytic-uremic syndrome (hemolytic anemia with red blood cell [RBC] fragmentation, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure). Diagnosis can be made by using selective media for E. coli 0157-H7 strain such as sorbitol-MacConkey agar (SMA), by fluorescent antibody stains applied to stool smears, or by verotoxin assay. In one study, verotoxin assay was 20% more sensitive than culture.

    Proteus

    This is a group of gramegative rods that assumes most importance as the cause of urinary tract infection in hospitalized patients (about 5%) but occasionally causes community-acquired cystitis and some cases of hospital-acquired bacteremia and other infections.

    Yersinia

    The genus Yersinia, which includes several organisms formerly located in the genus Pasteurella, contains three important species: Yersinia pestis, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, and Yersinia enterocolitica. Yersiniapestis is the cause of plague, which was transmitted historically by rat fleas, followed in some cases by nasopharyngeal droplet dissemination from infected humans. Today, plague is not a serious menace in Western nations, although a few cases in rodents (including prairie dogs) are reported each year from the American West and Southwest, from which source the disease is occasionally transmitted to humans. There are three clinical forms: septicemic, bubonic, and pneumonic. The septicemic type is responsible for 5%-10% of cases and is associated with a bacteremic form of febrile illness that progresses to septicemia and shock. Diagnosis is made by blood culture. When lymph nodes are primarily involved, the condition is known as bubonic plague. This constitutes the great majority of plague cases. However, septicemia or pneumonia may develop. Only one group of lymph nodes is enlarged in the majority of cases.

    Diagnosis is made by blood culture (positive in about 80% of cases) or lymph node aspiration and culture (positive in about 80% of cases). Pneumonic plague has been uncommon in recent years and is rapidly fatal. Blood culture and sputum culture provide the diagnosis. Y. pestis grows on ordinary laboratory culture media.

    Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is found in many wild and domestic animals and in various domestic fowl. Human infection is uncommon, or at least, is uncommonly recognized, and most often consists of mesenteric adenitis. There usually is abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis, a clinical picture that simulates acute appendicitis. Diagnosis is made by culture of affected lymph nodes (lymph nodes are likely to be placed in chemical fixative for microscopic examination, which makes culture impossible unless the surgeon orders a culture to be performed and directs personnel not to fix the specimen).

    Yersinia enterocolitica is by far the most common pathogen of these three Yersinia species. Y. enterocolitica most often produces acute enteritis, with clinical features including headache, fever, malaise, crampy abdominal pain, and nonbloody diarrhea. The organism also can produce mesenteric adenitis and, rarely, intraabdominal abscess or septicemia. Enteritis is more common in children and mesenteric adenitis in adolescents and adults. Diagnosis is made by stool culture in patients with enteritis and by lymph node culture in those with mesenteric adenitis. Culture is less reliable for Y. enterocolitica than for the other yersiniae, because the organism grows somewhat slowly and forms tiny pinpoint colonies on ordinary media used for gramegative rods, which can easily be overlooked among normal stool organism colonies. The organism grows much better at room temperature (25°C) than at the usual incubation temperature of 37°C. Some investigators believe that “cold enrichment” is necessary (special media incubated at 4°C for several weeks). Therefore Y. enterocolitica will usually be missed on routine culture unless the laboratory takes special precautions.

    “Opportunistic” enterobacteriaceae

    There are a considerable number of species located in various genera of the Enterobacteriaceae that are less common pathogens. It was originally thought that these organisms were nonpathogenic or rarely pathogenic and that their importance was only in the necessity for differentiation from more pathogenic enteric organisms such as Salmonella. Now, however, it is recognized that these organisms produce disease, most often urinary tract infections but also septicemia and pulmonary infections, although the frequency of infection for any individual species is not high. Most of these organisms have been renamed and reclassified since initial studies were done. Some of the more important organisms include Arizona, Providentia (formerly Proteus inconstans and Proteus rettgeri), Citrobacter (formerly Bethesda group and Escherichia freundii), and Serratia. Infections caused by these organisms are often associated with decreased host resistance and with long-term bladder catheterization. Serratia is usually considered the most dangerous of these organisms. About 90% of Serratia infections involve the urinary tract, the great majority following urinary tract surgery or cystoscopy or associated with indwelling catheters. As many as 50% of Serratia urinary tract infections are asymptomatic. Bacteremia develops in about 10%. A few patients develop Serratia pneumonia, although respiratory tract colonization is much more frequent than pneumonia. The most common (but not the only) means of Serratia spread from patient to patient is the hands of hospital personnel.

  • Other Venereal Diseases

    Other venereal diseases include lymphogranuloma venereum (caused by a subspecies of C. trachomatis different from the one that causes nongonococcal urethritis), syphilis, granuloma inguinale, trichomoniasis, chancroid, herpesvirus type 2, molluscum contagiosum, and condyloma acuminatum. Most of these will be discussed elsewhere.

    Gardnerella vaginalis

    This organism (also called Corynebacterium vaginalis and Haemophilus vaginalis) is a small bacillus or coccobacillus that gives variable results on Gram stain, most often gram negative, but sometimes gram positive. The organism has been implicated as the cause of most cases of “nonspecific vaginitis” (i.e., vaginitis not due to Candida albicans or Trichomonas). Clinical infection in women occurs only when estrogen levels are normal or increased, so postmenopausal women usually are not involved. Gardnerella vaginalis can also be cultured from the urethra of many male sexual partners of infected women, so the disease is postulated to be at least potentially sexually transmissible.

    Clinically, there is a vaginal discharge that typically is malodorous (although this odor was present in only two thirds of cases in one report). Other than the discharge, there usually are few or no symptoms in the female and none in the male.

    Diagnosis is usually made either from aspiration of vaginal discharge or from swab specimens of the vaginal wall (avoiding the cervix). The vaginal discharge specimens have a pH greater than 4.5, with 90% between 5.0 and 5.5 (normal pH is <4.5 except during menstruation, when the presence of blood raises the pH to 5.0 or more). Trichomonas parasitic infection may also produce a vaginal discharge with a pH greater than 4.5, whereas the pH in Candida infection usually is less than 4.5. Therefore, a discharge with a pH less than 4.5 is strong evidence against Trichomonas or Gardnerella infection, whereas a discharge with a pH greater than 5.0 suggests infection by these organisms. Addition of 10% sodium hydroxide to the specimen from G. vaginalis infection typically results in a fishy odor. A wet mount or Gram stain of discharge or swab material from the vaginal wall (avoiding the cervix) demonstrates clue cells in about 90% of G. vaginalis infections (literature ranges in the few studies available are 76%-98% for wet mount and 82%-100% for Gram stain). Clue cells are squamous epithelial cells with a granular appearance caused by adherence of many tiny G. vaginalis gramegative bacteria. Wet mount may sometimes be difficult to interpret due to degeneration of the squamous epithelial cells or because of only partial coverage of the cell by the Gardnerella organisms. Wet mount may occasionally produce a false positive result, and Gram stain is usually easier to interpret and generally more accurate; but one investigator found it to be somewhat more liable to false positive errors by mistaking diphtheroids for G. vaginalis. Papanicolaou cytology stain can also be used. The organism can be cultured on special media or on the same Thayer-Martin medium with increased carbon dioxide that is used for the diagnosis of gonorrhea. However, isolation of Gardnerella is not diagnostic of vaginitis, since Gardnerella can be cultured from the vagina in 42%-50% of clinically normal women. In addition, there is substantial evidence that anaerobic bacteria are associated with symptomatic infection by G. vaginalis.

    Several studies suggest that Gardnerella is responsible for urinary tract infection in some pregnant patients and some patients with chronic renal disease. Since Gardnerella does not grow on culture media routinely used for urine, urine culture in these patients would be negative. However, Gardnerella has been isolated with equal frequency in similar patients without clinical evidence of urinary tract infection.

  • Gram-Negative Diplococci

    Gramegative diplococci include several Neisseria species, such as meningococci and gonococci; and Branhamella catarrhalis. Branhamella catarrhalis (formerly Neisseria catarrhalis) is a member of the genus Moraxella but closely resembles neisseriae in many respects, including microscopic appearance. B. catarrhalis, as well as some of the neisseriae, is normally found in the upper respiratory tract. Although usually nonpathogenic, it occasionally can produce pneumonia (especially in patients with chronic lung disease) and very uncommonly has caused bacteremia.

    Meningococci

    Meningococcal infection is still the most common type of meningitis, although the incidence varies with age (Chapter 19). Meningococci are present in the nasopharynx of approximately 5%-15% (range, 0.9%-40%) of clinically normal persons, and it takes special subculturing to differentiate these from nonpathogenic Neisseria species that are normal common inhabitants of the nasopharynx. In rare instances one of the (usually) nonpathogenic Neisseria species may be associated with serious disease, such as septicemia or meningitis.

    Gonococci

    Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrheal urethritis and initiates the majority of cases of acute salpingitis, so-called pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Gonorrhea is not symptomatic in about 75%-80% (range, 60%-83%) of infected females and in about 10%-15% (range, 5%-42%) of infected males. Currently, about 2% of gonococcal strains are resistant to penicillin (range, 0%-6%, depending on the location in the United States; rates of 10%-30% have been reported in parts of the Far East and Africa). A presumptive diagnosis of gonorrhea can often be made by a Gram-stained smear of discharge from the male urethra. Gonococci appear as bean-shaped gramegative intracellular diplococci, located within the cytoplasm of polymorphonuclear neutrophils. Extracellular organisms are not considered reliable for diagnosis. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus (formerly Mima polymorpha) and Moravella osloensis look somewhat like gonococci in urethral gram stain; these bacteria are usually extracellular but can be intracellular. S. aureus sometimes may simulate Diplococcus, although it is rounder than typical gonococci organisms and is gram positive rather than gram negative. Finally, rare urethral infections by Neisseria meningitidis have been reported. Nevertheless, consensus is that diagnosis of gonorrhea can be made from a male urethral smear with reasonable confidence if there are definite gramegative diplococci having characteristic Neisseria morphology within neutrophils. In males with a urethral exudate, a smear is usually all that is required. The patient can wait while the smear is processed, and if the smear is negative or equivocal, culture can be done. In females, an endocervical Gram-stained smear is positive in only 50% of gonorrhea cases (literature range, 20%-70%). Cultures should therefore be done, both to supplement the smear as a screening technique and to provide definitive diagnosis. In females, the endocervical canal is the single best site for culture, detecting about 82%-92% of cases that would be uncovered by culture from multiple sites. About 30%-50% of patients have positive rectal cultures (swab cultures using an anoscope, taking care to avoid contamination with feces). Rectal culture adds an additional 5%-10% of cases to endocervical culture. Cultures repeated on specimens obtained 1 week later will uncover an additional 5%-10% of cases. In males, a rectal culture is positive much less frequently except in male homosexuals, with one study finding approximately 30% of cases positive only by rectal culture. Pharyngeal gonorrhea is usually asymptomatic, self-limited (10-12 weeks), and visible in less than 50% of cases. Gonococcal penicillin resistance occurs in 2% (0%-6%) of cases; some are resistant to certain other antibiotics.

    Certain technical points deserve mention. Gonococci should be cultured on special media, such as Thayer-Martin or NYC, rather than on the traditional less selective media like chocolate agar, and need a high carbon dioxide atmosphere for adequate growth. Speculum instruments should not be lubricated with material that could inhibit gonococcal growth (which includes most commercial lubricants). Specimens should be inoculated immediately into special transport media. There are several commercial transport systems available specifically for gonococci, most of them based on modified Thayer-Martin medium and incorporating some type of carbon dioxide source. Some authors state that the medium on which the specimen is to be inoculated should be warmed at least to room temperature before use, since gonococci may not grow if the medium is cold. However, others obtained similar results with cold or room temperature media. To make matters more confusing, some investigators report that vancomycin used in gonococcal selective media to prevent bacterial contaminant overgrowth may actually inhibit gonococcal growth if the gonococcal strain is sensitive to vancomycin (about 5%-10% of strains, range, 4%-30%). Due to the 24- to 48-hour delay in obtaining culture results and lack of adequate Gram stain sensitivity in female infection, additional rapid tests to detect gonococcal infection have been introduced. One of these is Gonozyme, an immunologic enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) procedure that takes 3 hours to perform. Sensitivity (compared to culture) in males is reported to be about 97% (range, 93%-100%, similar to Gram stain results) and about 93% (range, 74%-100%) in females. Disadvantages are that Gram stain is faster and less expensive in males, the test cannot be used for rectal or pharyngeal specimens due to cross-reaction with other Neisseria species, there is an inability to determine if a positive result is a penicillin-resistant infection, and there are a significant number of false negative results in females. At present, the test is not widely used. Gonorrhea precedes the majority of cases of acute and chronic salpingitis (PID). However, gonococci can be isolated from endocervical culture in only about 40%-50% of patients with proved PID (literature range, 5%-80%). Chlamydia trachomatis apparently is also an important initiator of PID— or at least associated with it in some way—with acute infection with Chlamydia being present in a substantial minority of patients, either alone or concurrently with gonorrhea (combined infection of the endocervix is reported in 25%-50% of cases). The organisms most frequently recovered from infected fallopian tubes or from tuboovarian abscesses include gonococci, group D streptococci, anaerobes such as Bacteroides or anaerobic streptococci, and gramegative rods. Infection is often polymicrobial.

    Nongonococcal urethritis and the acute urethral syndrome. In men, nongonococcal urethritis reportedly constitutes about 40% of urethritis cases, and some believe that it is more frequent than gonorrhea. The most common symptom is a urethral discharge. Chlamydia trachomatis is the most commonly reported organism, identified in 30%-50% of male nongonococcal urethritis patients. Chlamydia has also been found in some female patients with nongonococcal cervicitis, and Chlamydia may coexist with gonococci in other patients. Ureaplasma urealyticum (formerly called T mycoplasma) is frequently cultured in male nongonococcal urethritis, but its relationship to disease is not proved. Reiter’s syndrome might also be mentioned as an occasional cause of nongonococcal urethritis. Chlamydia organisms have been found in some cases of Reiter’s syndrome. In females, nongonococcal urethritis is usually called the acute urethral syndrome. Symptoms are most commonly acute dysuria and frequency, similar to those of acute cystitis. In females with these symptoms, about 50% have acute cystitis, and about 25%-30% (range, 15%-40%) are due to the acute urethral syndrome. Some of the remainder are due to vaginitis. Differentiation between acute cystitis and the acute urethral syndrome is made through urine culture. A urine culture with no growth or quantitative growth less than 100,000/mm3 suggests acute urethral syndrome. Diagnosis of urethral infection usually requires the following steps:

    1. Symptoms of urethritis (urethral discharge or dysuria).
    2. Objective evidence of urethritis. In men, a urethral Gram-stained smear demonstrating more than four segmented neutrophils per oil immersion field or (alternatively) 10 or more leukocytes per high-power field (some require 15 rather than 10) in the centrifuged sediment from the first portion (first 10-30 ml collected separately) of a clean-catch (midstream) voided urine specimen is required. In women, a urine culture without growth or growing an organism but quantitatively less than 100,000 (105) organisms/ml is required.
    3. Exclusion of gonococcal etiology (urethral smear or culture in men, urethral culture in women). Culture or direct identification (e.g., fluorescent antibody or nucleic acid probe methods) would be needed to detect Chlamydia or Mycoplasma organisms.

  • Gram-Positive Cocci

    Streptococci

    Streptococci are gram-positive cocci that, on Gram stain, typically occur in chains. Streptococci are subclassified in several ways. The three most useful classifications are by bacterial oxygen requirements, by colony appearance on blood agar, and by specific carbohydrate from the organism. Depending on clinical oxygen environment associated with disease, streptococci may be considered aerobic, microaerophilic, or anaerobic. Most streptococci are aerobic. The microaerophilic organisms sometimes cause a chronic resistant type of skin ulcer and occasionally are isolated in deep wound infections. The anaerobic streptococci are discussed later.

    Streptococci are divided into three types by the appearance of the hemolysis that the streptococcal colonies produce on sheep blood agar—alpha, beta, and gamma. Alpha (hemolytic) streptococci are characterized by incomplete hemolysis surrounding the colony; this area usually has a greenish appearance on sheep blood agar, and streptococci producing green hemolysis are often called “viridans.” The beta hemolytic organisms produce a complete, clear (colorless) hemolysis. Gamma streptococci do not produce hemolysis on sheep blood agar. These differences have clinical value. Alpha streptococci of the viridans subgroup are one of the most frequent causes of subacute bacterial endocarditis. Beta streptococci are the causative agent of several different types of infection and syndromes, as will be discussed later, and account for the great majority of disease associated with streptococci with the exception of subacute bacterial endocarditis. Gamma streptococci are of lesser importance, but some of the organisms known as enterococci belong to this category.

    The third classification is that of Lancefield, who discovered antibodies produced to a somatic carbohydrate of streptococcal organisms. Streptococci can be divided into groups according to the particular carbohydrate they possess on the basis of organism reaction to the different Lancefield antibodies (antisera). These groups are given a capital letter name ranging from A to G (in some classifications, even letters further in the alphabet but excluding E). Lancefield grouping does not depend on the presence of hemolysis or the type of hemolysis; for example, streptococci of group A are all beta hemolytic but streptococci of group D can be either alpha or beta hemolytic or even gamma nonhemolytic. Lancefield grouping cannot be done on some streptococci that are not beta hemolytic with the exception of those from groups B and D. Lancefield group A organisms, as mentioned earlier, are always beta hemolytic, and colonies are definitively identified with group-specific antiserum. This requires culture of a specimen, isolation of several colonies of a beta hemolytic organism resembling Streptococcus by colony appearance or Gram stain, and testing a colony with the Lancefield antisera. However, Lancefield antisera are relatively expensive, and since group A organisms seem to have an unusually marked susceptibility to the antibiotic bacitracin, Lancefield grouping is very frequently replaced by a less expensive identification method based on demonstrating inhibition of growth around a disk impregnated with a standardized concentration of bacitracin in an agar culture containing a pure growth of the organism (the organism is first identified as a Streptococcus by Gram stain or biochemical tests). However, this method is only presumptive rather than definitive, since about 5% (range, 4%-10%) of hemolytic group A streptococci are not inhibited by bacitracin (these organisms would be incorrectly excluded from group A), whereas 8%-22% of beta hemolytic streptococci from groups other than A (e.g., B, C, D, and G) have been reported to be sensitive to bacitracin (and therefore would be incorrectly assigned to group A.) Also, the bacitracin method takes 2 and sometimes even 3 days—1 day to culture the organism, 1 day to perform the disk susceptibility test, and sometimes another day to separate the organism colony from other bacterial colonies before the bacitracin test if the original culture grows several different organisms.

    Group A organisms may be further separated into subgroups (strains) by use of special antisera against surface antigens (M antigens). Strain typing is mostly useful in epidemiologic work, such as investigating outbreaks of acute glomerulonephritis, and is not helpful in most clinical situations. Group A streptococci produce certain enzymes, such as streptolysin-O, which can be detected by serologic tests (antistreptolysin-O titer, Chapter 23). Antibodies against these enzymes do not appear until 7-10 days after onset of infection, so they are usually not helpful in diagnosing acute streptococcal infection. Their major usefulness is in the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.

    Rapid immunologic identification tests from many manufacturers have now become commercially available for group A streptococci that directly test for the organisms in swab specimens without culture. Usually the organism is extracted from the swab chemically or enzymatically and then tested with antiserum against group A antigen. The rapid tests can be performed in about 10-15 minutes (range, 5-60 minutes, not counting setup time of perhaps 5-15 minutes). Compared to throat culture, average overall sensitivity of the new direct methods is about 87%-95% (range 61%-100%, including different results on the same manufacturer’s kits by different investigators). Reported sensitivity is about 5%-10% higher if comparison culture specimens contain at least 10 organism colonies than if the culture density is less than 10 colonies. There is debate in the literature whether throat cultures with density of less than 10 colonies represent clinically significant infection. Some consider growth less than 10 colonies to represent a carrier state, but others disagree. Another point to remember is that rapid test sensitivity quoted in reports is not true clinical sensitivity, since rapid test sensitivity is usually less than culture sensitivity and culture sensitivity itself is rarely more than 95%. (It is probably less, since various changes in usual laboratory culture technical methodology for throat cultures have each been reported to increase culture sensitivity about 5%-10%, sometimes even more. In fact, one study on tonsillectomy patients found only 82% of preoperative throat cultures were positive when operative tonsillar tissue culture obtained group A streptococci.)

    Lancefield group A streptococci are also known as Streptococcus pyogenes. Certain strains are associated with specific diseases, such as acute glomerulonephritis and acute rheumatic fever. Group A beta streptococci also produce various infections without any stain specificity. The most common is acute pharyngitis. Wound infections and localized skin cellulitis are relatively frequent. Other diseases that are much less common, although famous historically, include scarlet fever, erysipelas (vesicular cellulitis), and puerperal fever. There are even a few reports describing patients with necrotizing fasciitis or a condition resembling staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.

    Group A beta hemolytic streptococci may be isolated from throat or nasopharyngeal cultures in 15%-20% (range, 11%-60%) of clinically normal children. Nevertheless, for clinical purposes they are not considered normal inhabitants of the throat or nasopharynx since the usual current culture or serologic methods, which are done in the acute stage of infection, cannot reliably differentiate between carrier state and true pathogen, and prompt therapy for group A streptococcal nasopharyngeal infection is thought to decrease the possibility of acute rheumatic fever or acute glomerulonephritis. The accuracy of group A streptococcal isolation from throat cultures can be enhanced in several ways. Anaerobic rather than aerobic incubation has been reported to increase sensitivity about 15% (range, 0%-35%). Obtaining specimens on two swabs instead of one is reported to increase yield approximately 10%. Use of special differential media (with certain antibiotics added) helps to suppress growth of other organisms (e.g., hemolytic Haemophilus species) that may simulate beta hemolytic streptococcal colonies. However, not all of these enhancement techniques produce the same reported additive effect if they are combined. Although group A streptococci are almost always sensitive to penicillin on in vitro antibiotic sensitivity tests, 10%-30% of adequately treated patients continue to harbor the organisms and are considered carriers.

    Lancefield group B streptococci (also known as Streptococcus agalactiae) are one of the most common causes of neonatal septicemia and meningitis. Escherichiacoli is the most frequent etiology of neonatal meningitis, but it has been reported that about one third of cases are due to group B streptococci. Neonatal group B streptococcal infection may occur in two clinical forms: early onset (before age 7-10 days, usually within 48 hours of birth), and late onset (after age 7-10 days). Septic neonates may have respiratory distress that mimics the noninfectious respiratory distress syndrome. The source of Streptococcus infection is the maternal genital tract, with 20%-30% (literature range, 4.6%-40%) of mothers and a similar percentage of all women of child-bearing age being culture-positive. Vaginal and perirectal colonization are more likely than cervical or urinary tract colonization. Colonization exists in all three trimesters in approximately the same percentage of women. About two thirds of women colonized in the first trimester of pregnancy are still culture-positive at delivery.

    Group B streptococcus (GBS) causes about 20% of postpartum endometritis and 10%-20% of postpartum bacteremia. Caesarian section in a colonized mother has a higher risk of endometrial infection. GBS maternal colonization can also result in maternal urinary tract infection or bacteremia.

    About 50% of infants born to mothers with culture-proven GBS become colonized (range, 40%-73%), with the bacteria usually acquired during delivery. About 1%-2% of colonized infants develop clinical GBS infection. GBS infection accounts for 30%-50% of neonatal serious infections. Principal risk factors for neonatal clinical GBS infection are prematurity and premature rupture of the membranes (also a twin with infection, maternal urinary tract infection or bacteremia, multiple births, or African American race). About two thirds of infected (not only colonized) neonates develop early onset disease and about one third develop late onset disease.

    Diagnosis is most often made by maternal culture. The highest yield is obtained by one or more swabs from multiple sites in the distal third of the vagina plus the perineum (perirectal) area placed into selective liquid culture medium (usually Todd-Hewitt broth). Use of cervical cultures and solid culture media results in a considerably lower percentage of positive cultures. Rapid immunologic tests are available, similar in methodology to those for Group A streptococcal throat tests. However, current kit sensitivity for vaginal-rectal GBS overall is only about 40%-60% (range, 20%-88%), with the highest rates occurring in more heavily colonized patients. There is not a dependable cor- relation between degree of colonization and infant infection rate, although heavy colonization is more likely to result in neonatal infection.

    There is controversy whether all mothers should be screened for GBS colonization before delivery (usually at about 26 weeks’ gestation), at delivery only, at delivery only if risk factors are present, or no screening at all with all infants being watched closely for the first hours after birth. There is also controversy whether those who are culture-positive early in pregnancy should be treated immediately, whether those positive at delivery should be treated, or if no cultures are done, whether prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with risk factors or to all patients during delivery. In general, positive cultures obtained early in pregnancy have a 70%-80% chance of a positive culture at delivery, whereas a negative culture obtained early in pregnancy is much less reliable in predicting status at delivery. Intradelivery parenteral antibiotics (usually penicillin or ampicillin) beginning before delivery, are the most commonly recommended method of prophylaxis. The two most frequent recommendations for this prophylaxis are a positive culture before delivery or presence of maternal risk factors. One recent report advocates intradelivery treatment for all mothers as the most cost-effective procedure (based on review of the literature).

    GBS may also produce adult infections in nonpregnant persons (although this is not frequent), with postpartum endometritis, infection after urinary tract or gynecologic operations, pneumonia, and soft tissue infections being the most common types. Many affected adults have some underlying disease or predisposing cause. GBS also produces mastitis in cows.

    Culture is the major diagnostic test for GBS. Besides culture, rapid latex agglutination slide tests for group B streptococcal antigen in body fluids are now available from several manufacturers. Although not many studies are published, reports indicate that these tests when performed on concentrated urine specimens detect 90%-100% of cases in culture-positive neonatal group B streptococcal bacteremia. Serum or unconcentrated urine is generally less successful.

    Lancefield group C streptococci are primarily animal pathogens. However, these organisms may be found in the nasopharynx (1.5%-11%), vagina, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract of clinically normal persons. The most common strain in humans is Streptococcus anginosus. Group C streptococci occasionally produce human disease, most commonly (but not limited to) pharyngitis and meningitis (about 6% of cases; range, 3%-26%).

    Lancefield group D streptococci contain several species, of which Streptococcus faecalis (one of the enterococci) and Streptococcus bovis (one of the nonenterococci) are the most important. Group D streptococci are responsible for approximately 20% (range, 8%-21%) of infectious endocarditis, typically that subgroup formerly called subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE), and about 10% of urinary tract infections, as well as constituting the third most common cause of biliary tract infections. Group D streptococci are also associated with mixed wound infections, intraabdominal infections and a wide variety of other conditions, although there is some controversy about their relative pathogenicity in these circumstances. The majority of serious group D infections are due to enterococci. Enterococci are certain species of group D streptococci that are found normally in the human intestinal tract and that have certain special laboratory characteristics. These include resistance to heating and growth in certain media such as bile-esculin and 6.5% sodium chloride. Some species of enterococci produce alpha hemo- lysis, some produce beta hemolysis, and some are (gamma) nonhemolytic. Besides their role in infectious endocarditis (10%-12% of cases, range, 6%-20%), enterococci assume importance because they frequently are involved in other nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections, particularly urinary tract infections (about 10%, range 6%-16%) and because they are usually partially resistant or resistant to penicillin. Bacteremia due to nonenterococcal S. bovis has been very frequently associated with either benign or malignant colon neoplasms (about two thirds of cases, range 17%-95%). Recently it has been proposed that the enterococci should be removed from the streptococci and placed into a new genus called Enterococcus. The new genus would include Enterococcus faecalis, Enterococcus faecium, Enterococcus durans, and several others. Streptococcus group D would include S. bovis and Streptococcus equinus.

    Lancefield group F streptococci (Streptococcus anginosus also called milleri) form tiny colonies. Infection is uncommon, but they have been reported to cause bacteremia, dental abscesses, and abscesses in other body tissues, usually superimposed on preexisting abnormality.

    Lancefield group G streptococci are among the normal flora in the nasopharynx (up to 23% of persons), skin, vagina, and GI tract. The most common serious infection is bacteremia, being isolated in 3.5% of all patients with bacteremia in one study. Many of these patients had serious underlying disease, especially cancer (21%-65% of patients in this study with group G bacteremia). Other infections are uncommon, but pharyngitis and arthritis are among the more important. Other Lancefield groups have occasionally been reported to produce human infection.

    Viridans streptococci. The viridans group has been defined in several ways. The most common definition is streptococci that lack Lancefield antigens and produce alpha hemolysis on sheep blood agar. However, other investigators state that some viridans organisms are nonhemolytic, and still others say that some species can react with various Lancefield group antisera, although not with group B or D. Viridans streptococci are the most common cause of infectious endocarditis (that subgroup formerly known as SBE), being isolated in approximately 35%-40% of cases (range 30%-52%). They may also cause urinary tract infection, pneumonia, and wound infection. They are normal inhabitants of the mouth and may have a role in producing dental caries.

    Streptococcus pneumoniae. This organism is clinically known as pneumococcus and occasionally is called Diplococcus pneumoniae in the literature. Although S. pneumoniae is a member of the Streptococcus genus, most nonmicrobiologists usually think of pneumonococcus as a separate entity from the other streptococci. Pneumococci are gram-positive diplococci that can be found in the throat of 30%-70% of apparently normal persons. They are still the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia, usually comprising at least 50% (range, 26%-78%) of community-acquired cases. They also produce many cases of middle ear infection in children and are an important cause of meningitis in older children, adolescents, and adults, most commonly in debilitated persons. Pneumococcal bacteremia develops in about 20% (range, 15%-25%) of patients with pneumococcal pneumonia, and pneumococcus is found in about 18% of all bacteremias, with the incidence being even higher in children. Splenectomy (or sickle cell anemia hyposplenism) is one well-known predisposing cause. The great majority of pneumococcal strains are very sensitive to penicillin, although about 4%-5% (range, 0%-20%, depending on the geographical area) of isolates are now relatively resistant and 1%-2% (range, 0%-6%) are resistant. Relative resistance is important in blood and cavity fluid, and especially in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

    Pneumococci usually produce alpha (green) incomplete hemolysis on blood agar and thus mimic viridans streptococci. Morphologic differentiation from streptococci may be difficult, especially in cultures, since streptococci may appear singly or in pairs (instead of chains), and pneumococci often do not have the typical lancet shape or grouping in pairs. In the laboratory, differentiation is readily made because of the special sensitivity of pneumococci to a compound known as optochin. A disk impregnated with optochin is placed on the culture plate; inhibition of an alpha hemolytic coccus denotes pneumococci.

    Besides diagnosis by culture, rapid slide latex agglutination tests for pneumococcal antigen are now available (developed for testing of CSF in patients with meningitis). Unfortunately, in the few reports available, detection of antigen in serum or unconcentrated urine has been less than 40%. Sensitivity in concentrated urine may be considerably better, but too little data are available.

    Staphylococci

    Staphylococci are gram-positive cocci that typically occur in clusters. Originally they were divided into three groups, depending on colony characteristics on blood agar: Staphylococcus albus (Staphylococcus epidermidis), with white colonies; Staphylococcus aureus, with yellow colonies; and Staphylococcus citreus, with pale green colonies. In that classification, S. aureus was by far the most important; it was generally hemolytic, and the pathogenic species were coagulase positive. The newer classification recognizes that coagulase activity (the ability to coagulate plasma) is a better indication of pathogenicity than colony color, since a significant number of coagulase-positive organisms are not yellow on blood agar. Therefore, all coagulase-positive staphylococci are now called S. aureus. Many microbiology laboratories still issue reports such as “S. aureus coagulase positive”; it is not necessary to include the coagulase result because S. aureus by definition is coagulase positive. Detection of heat-stable anti-DNA (“thermonuclease”), another enzyme produced by S. aureus, is generally considered to be the best confirmatory test for S. aureus should this be necessary. This test is nearly as sensitive and specific as coagulase but is more expensive and time consuming.

    At this point, a few words should be said regarding coagulase tests. S. aureus produces two types of coagulase, known as bound coagulase (“clumping factor”) and free coagulase. The standard procedure is known as the tube coagulase test, based on the ability of free coagulase to clot plasma. This test requires 4 hours’ incubation and sometimes as long as 24 hours to confirm nonreactive results or weak positive reactions. Bound coagulase alone was originally used in a slide coagulase test that required only 1-2 minutes but produced about 20% false negative results. More recently, rapid 15- to 60-second slide tests based on reagents that react with either bound coagulase, protein A (another substance produced by S. aureus), or both have been introduced. Evaluations have shown sensitivities of about 98%-99% (range, 94%-100%) for these tests. However, false positive results have been reported in a few percent of most such tests, although the majority of evaluations of each test have not reported false positive results. Also, at least one investigator has reported at least 1% (and sometimes more) false negative results with each test when used with methicillin-resistant S. aureus. The family Micrococcaceae contains several genera, including Staphylococcus and Micrococcus. Both of these genera are composed of organisms that are identical on Gram stain and have certain biochemical similarities. As noted above, those that are coagulase positive are placed in the Staphylococcus genus and designated S. aureus. Gram-positive cocci that resemble S. aureus morphologically but that are coagulase negative have not yet been subjected to a uniform method of reporting. Some laboratories call all of them “S. epidermidis” or “coagulaseegative staphylococci.” Others differentiate organisms from the genus Staphylococcus and the genus Micrococcus on the basis of certain biochemical tests such as the ability of staphylococci to produce acid from glucose anaerobically. In general, non-aureus staphylococci, although much less pathogenic than S. aureus, are more pathogenic than micrococci. Some of the larger laboratories differentiate species of non-aureus staphylococci using certain tests. The species most commonly associated with human disease are S. epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

    Staphylococci, as well as the enteric gramegative rod organisms and some of the Clostridia gram-positive anaerobes (to be discussed later), are normal inhabitants of certain body areas. The habitat of staphylococci is the skin. Therefore, a diagnosis of staphylococcal infection should not be made solely on the basis of S. aureus isolation from an external wound; there should be evidence that S. aureus is actually causing clinical disease. Besides the skin, about one half of all adults out- side the hospital carry S. aureus in the nasopharynx; this reportedly increases to 70%-80% if cultures are performed repeatedly on the same population over a long period. More than 50% of hospitalized persons have positive nasopharyngeal cultures. Exactly what factors induce these commensal organisms to cause clinical disease is not completely understood.

    Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is typically associated with purulent inflammation and characteristically produces abscesses. The most common site of infection is the skin, most frequently confined to minor lesions, such as pustules or possibly small carbuncles, but occasionally producing widespread impetigo in children and infants. The most frequent type of serious staphylococcal disease (other than childhood impetigo) is wound infection or infection associated with hospital diagnostic or therapeutic procedures.

    In a small but important number of cases, S. aureus produces certain specific infections. Staphylococcal pneumonia may occur, especially in debilitated persons, or following a viral pneumonia. Meningitis and septicemia are also occasionally found, again, more commonly in debilitated persons or those with decreased resistance—often without any apparent portal of entry. S. aureus produces about 20%-25% (range, 9%-33%) of infectious endocarditis (especially that subgroup that used to be called acute rather than subacute). S. aureus causes a type of food poisoning different from that of the usual infectious agent; symptoms result from ingestion of bacterial toxins rather than from actual enteric infection by living organisms.

    S. aureus frequently produces an enzyme known as beta-lactamase which makes the organism resistant to certain antibiotics that contain a beta-lactam ring structure such as penicillin G and ampicillin. S. aureus resistant to methicillin (MRSA) is a particularly difficult problem and will be discussed later in the section on antibiotic sensitivity testing. The nationwide incidence of MRSA (as a percentage of all S. aureus isolates) is about 4%; for individual hospitals, the range is 0%-60%. Staphylococcus epidermidis in many areas of the country is frequently resistant to a considerable number of antibiotics, including methicillin.

    Toxic shock syndrome. The toxic shock syndrome is a disease strongly linked to S. aureus infection. The syndrome has been seen in various age groups in both sexes but occurs predominantly in females of childbearing age. There is an association with use of vaginal tampons, but a considerable number of cases have occurred when tampons were not used. Many (but not all) cases occur during the menstrual period. At least 15% of cases are not related to menses or tampon use but in- stead are preceded by surgical wound infection or by infections of other types. Clinical criteria for the syndrome include temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) or greater, erythematous sunburnlike or macular rash with eventual skin peeling or desquamation (especially on the palms and soles), hypotension or shock, clinical or laboratory involvement of at least four organ systems, and no definite evidence of bacteremia.

    Involvement of organ systems is evidenced by a combination of symptoms and laboratory data. The classic syndrome includes at least four of the following organ systems (the approximate incidence of laboratory abnormality reported in one study is listed after each test):

    1. Gastrointestinal: Vomiting and watery diarrhea.
    2. Central nervous system: Headache, confusion, and disorientation. Stiff neck may occur. CSF tests are usually normal.
    3. Liver: Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT, 75%) or alanine aminotransferase (SGPT, 50%) more than twice the upper limit of the reference range. Total bilirubin may also be increased (70%).
    4. Kidney: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN, 68%) or serum creatinine (90%) levels more than twice the upper limit of the reference range. There may be increased numbers of urinary white blood cells (WBCs) (73%) with negative urine cultures. Oliguria may occur.
    5. Mucous membranes: Conjunctivitis.
    6. Hematologic: Hemoglobin level is usually normal (77%). The WBC count may be normal (52%) or increased (48%). Neutrophil percentage is usually increased (86%), and frequently there are increased band forms. Dohle bodies are often present. Schistocytes are present in some patients (48%). The platelet count is less than 100,000/mm3 in 42%, the activated partial thromboplastin time is elevated in 46%, and fibrin split products are frequently elevated; but the fibrinogen level is normal in 86% and the prothrombin time is normal in 93%.
    7. Muscular: Myalgias; creatine phosphokinase level is more than twice the upper limit of the reference range (63%).

    It is not clear how many of the laboratory abnormalities are due to the disease itself or are secondary to hypotension with tissue hypoxia.

    Staphylococcus aureus has been cultured from the cervix or vagina in approximately 75% of toxic shock patients (literature range 67%-92%) as opposed to approximately 7% (literature range, 0%-15%) of normal persons. Some series include culture data from the nasopharynx in addition to the cervix-vaginal region. This is more difficult to interpret since about 20% of normal persons carry S. aureus in their nasopharynx. Blood cultures are usually sterile. Toxic shock S. aureus is said to be usually nonhemolytic phage type 1, able to produce toxic shock toxin-1 (TSST-1) exotoxin, sensitive to erythromycin but resistant to penicillin. Currently, there is no readily available test to differentiate toxic shock from other entities with similar clinical or laboratory manifestations. It is possible to culture the organism and send an isolate to some reference laboratory able to test for production of TSST-1, but this would take several days.

    Staphylococcus epidermidis. Staphylococcus epidermidis is found in more abundance on the skin than S. aureus and is a relatively frequent contaminant in cultures from the skin area. It may also be a contaminant in blood cultures or other cultures when the material for culture is obtained by needle puncture of the skin. However, S. epidermidis may produce disease. Infections most frequently associated with S. epidermidis are related to indwelling catheters, vascular grafts, or joint prosthetic devices; bacteremia in patients who are immunosuppressed; and infection after eye surgery (endophthalmitis). It is the causal agent of infectious endocarditis in 2%-3% of all endocarditis cases (range, 1%-8%), more often in persons with an artificial heart valve (where it may comprise up to 40% of prosthetic valve endocarditis). S. epidermidis is the most frequent cause of bacterial colonization or infection associated with indwelling vascula catheters and those used for hyperalimentation, where it is reported to cause about 20% of bacteremias and 40% of septicemias. Other catheter-related problem areas include CSF shunts (causing about 50% of infections; range, 44%-70%) and peritoneal dialysis catheters (about 50% of infections). S. epidermidis is also reported to cause about 40% (range, 25%-70%) of orthopedic joint prosthesis infections. Since S. epidermidis is a common skin-dwelling organism, it is a frequent culture contaminant. When it is obtained from a blood culture, there is always a question regarding its significance. Some rules of thumb from the literature that would tend to suggest contamination are isolation from only one of a series of cultures, isolation from only one of two cultures drawn close together in time, and isolation from only one bottle of an aerobic and anaerobic two-bottle culture set inoculated from the same syringe. However, none of these conclusively proves that the organism is a contaminant. Whereas S. aureus is differentiated from other staphylococci by a positive coagulase test result, many laboratories do not perform tests to identify the exact species of coagulaseegative staphylococci but report them all as S. epidermidis. However, not all of these organisms are S. epidermidis. Also, at least one of the coagulaseegative nonepidermidis staphylococci, S. saprophyticus, has been implicated as the causal agent in about 20% of urinary tract infections occurring in young women. On the other hand, S. epidermidis is not considered to be a urinary tract pathogen in young women, at least by some investigators. Therefore, it might be better to use the term “coagulaseegative Staphylococcus” in culture reports if the laboratory does not speciate these organisms. S. epidermidis is often resistant to many antibiotics, with 33%-66% reported to be resistant to methicillin.

  • Laboratory Classification of Bacteria

    The most useful laboratory classification of bacteria involves a threefold distinction: the Gram stain characteristics (gram positive or gram negative), morphology (coccus or bacillus), and oxygen requirements for growth (aerobic or anaerobic). Species exist that are morphologic exceptions, such as spirochetes; others are intermediate in oxygen requirements; still others are identified by other techniques, such as the acid-fast stain. Reaction to Gram stain has long been correlated with bacterial sensitivity to certain classes of antibiotics. A classic example is the susceptibility of most gram-positive organisms to penicillin. Morphology, when used in conjunction with this primary reaction, greatly simplifies identification of large bacterial groups, and oxygen growth requirements narrow the possibilities still further. The interrelationship of these characteristics also helps to control laboratory error. For example, if cocci seem to be gram negative instead of gram positive, a laboratory recheck of the decolorization step in the Gram procedure is called for since nearly all cocci are gram positive. If the staining technique is verified, the possibility of a small bacillus (Coccobacillus) or a Diplococcus must be considered.

  • Stains to Detect or Identify Organisms

    Histologic-type stains are used daily in the microbiology laboratory; most often Gram stain and acid-fast stain (Ziehl-Neelsen or its modifications). Both of these stains detect certain bacteria and to some extent help identify them. Other histologic stains perform the same purpose in tissue slide examination; the most common are paraaminosalycylic acid (PAS) and silver stains for fungi. Immunohistologic stains containing antibody against organism antigen can be used on smears or histologic slides to identify organisms, although this is not frequently done.

  • Serologic Tests

    In many cases, direct detection methods are not possible, are difficult and expensive, are unreliable, or are attempted with negative results. Serologic tests attempt to detect antibodies formed against antigens of an organism being searched for. The majority of organisms have a reasonably predictable antibody response. IgM-type antibodies appear first, most often in 7-14 days (sometimes later), generally reaching peak titer about 2 weeks later, then falling, and becoming nondetectable about 6 months later (usual range, 4-8 months, although sometimes longer). IgG-type antibodies typically appear about 2 weeks after initial appearance of IgM antibodies, peak about 2 weeks later, and typically persist for years (although some eventually disappear and others may slowly decrease in titer and persist at low titers). If antibodies to a particular organism are rare in a community, a single significantly elevated result can be at least presumptively diagnostic. However, most often it requires two serum specimens, one obtained immediately and the other 2-3 weeks later, hoping to obtain a fourfold (2-tube serial dilution) rise in titer in order to prove current or recent infection. Potential problems include circumstances in which serologic tests for certain organisms are not available, tests ordered to detect one organism when another is the culprit, patients who fail to produce detectable antibody, patient antibody formation that varies in time from the usual pattern, serum specimens obtained before antibody rise or after antibody becomes nondetectable, and specimens obtained after antibody has peaked so that past infection cannot be differentiated from current infection. In the last of these circumstances, presence of IgM antibody in high titer would suggest current or relatively recent infection. Finally, there is substantial variation in homemade or commercially available test kits, both in ability to detect the desired antibodies (sensitivity) and the number of false positive results obtained (specificity).